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CompTIA CAS-004 is a certification exam designed for IT professionals who are looking to validate their advanced-level security skills and knowledge. CAS-004 exam is called the CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+), and it is a globally recognized credential that demonstrates proficiency in the field of cybersecurity.
The CASP+ certification is an advanced-level certification that validates the skills and knowledge of experienced IT professionals in the field of cybersecurity. The CAS-004 exam is the latest version of the certification exam and covers a broad range of topics. Passing the exam demonstrates the candidate's expertise in cybersecurity and can lead to career advancement opportunities.
CompTIA CAS-004 (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)) Certification Exam is designed for IT professionals who are responsible for advanced-level security practices in their organizations. CAS-004 exam is a vendor-neutral certification that provides the necessary skills and knowledge to design, implement, and manage complex security solutions. CAS-004 exam is intended for professionals who have a minimum of 10 years of experience in IT administration, including at least 5 years of hands-on technical security experience.
NEW QUESTION # 145
A security engineer investigates an incident and determines that a rogue device is on the network. Further investigation finds that an employee's personal device has been set up to access company resources and does not comply with standard security controls. Which of the following should the security engineer recommend to reduce the risk of future reoccurrence?
- A. Require device certificates to access company resources.
- B. Encrypt all workstation hard drives.
- C. Hide the company wireless SSID.
- D. Enable MFA at the organization's SSO portal.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To reduce the risk of unauthorized devices accessing company resources, requiring device certificates is an effective control. Device certificates can be used to authenticate devices before they are allowed to connect to the network and access resources, ensuring that only devices with a valid certificate, which are typically managed and issued by the organization, can connect.
NEW QUESTION # 146
An analyst has prepared several possible solutions to a successful attack on the company.
The solutions need to be implemented with the LEAST amount of downtime.
Which of the following should the analyst perform?
- A. Implement all the solutions at once in a virtual lab and then run the attack simulation. Collect the metrics and then choose the best solution based on the metrics.
- B. Implement every solution one at a time in a virtual lab, running an attack simulation each time while collecting metrics. Roll back each solution and then implement the next. Choose the best solution based on the best metrics.
- C. Implement every solution one at a time in a virtual lab, running a metric collection each time. After the collection, run the attack simulation, roll back each solution, and then implement the next. Choose the best solution based on the best metrics.
- D. Implement all the solutions at once in a virtual lab and then collect the metrics. After collection, run the attack simulation. Choose the best solution based on the best metrics.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 147
An organization's existing infrastructure includes site-to-site VPNs between datacenters. In the past year, a sophisticated attacker exploited a zero-day vulnerability on the VPN concentrator. Consequently, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is making infrastructure changes to mitigate the risk of service loss should another zero-day exploit be used against the VPN solution.
Which of the following designs would be BEST for the CISO to use?
- A. Transitioning to a container-based architecture for site-based services
- B. Implementing IDS services with each VPN concentrator
- C. Using Base64 encoding within the existing site-to-site VPN connections
- D. Distributing security resources across VPN sites
- E. Adding a second redundant layer of alternate vendor VPN concentrators
Answer: E
Explanation:
If on VPN concentrator goes down due to a zero day threat, having a redundant VPN concentrator of a different vendor should keep you going.
NEW QUESTION # 148
Which of the following processes involves searching and collecting evidence during an investigation or lawsuit?
- A. Review analysis
- B. Information governance
- C. Chain of custody
- D. E-discovery
Answer: D
Explanation:
E-discovery is the process of searching and collecting evidence during an investigation or lawsuit. E-discovery involves identifying, preserving, processing, reviewing, analyzing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant for a legal case or investigation. E-discovery can be used to find evidence in email, business communications, social media, online documents, databases, and other digital sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario
NEW QUESTION # 149
Which of the following is a benefit of using steganalysis techniques in forensic response?
- A. Determining the frequency of unique attacks against DRM-protected media
- B. Maintaining chain of custody for acquired evidence
- C. Identifying least significant bit encoding of data in a .wav file
- D. Breaking a symmetric cipher used in secure voice communications
Answer: C
Explanation:
Steganalysis is the process of detecting hidden data in files or media, such as images, audio, or video. One technique of steganalysis is to identify least significant bit encoding, which is a method of hiding data by altering the least significant bits of each byte in a file. For example, a .wav file could contain hidden data encoded in the least significant bits of each audio sample. Steganalysis techniques can help forensic responders to discover hidden evidence or malicious payloads. Breaking a symmetric cipher, determining the frequency of attacks, or maintaining chain of custody are not related to steganalysis. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source
/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 150
A business is growing and starting to branch out into other locations. In anticipation of opening an office in a different country, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) and legal team agree they need to meet the following criteria regarding data to open the new office:
Store taxation-related documents for five years
Store customer addresses in an encrypted format
Destroy customer information after one year
Keep data only in the customer's home country
Which of the following should the CISO implement to BEST meet these requirements? (Choose three.)
- A. Legal compliance policy
- B. Data retention policy
- C. Data classification standard
- D. Encryption standard
- E. Capacity planning policy
- F. Data sovereignty policy
- G. Backup policy
- H. Acceptable use policy
Answer: B,D,F
NEW QUESTION # 151
A security analyst is reviewing SIEM events and is uncertain how to handle a particular event. The file is reviewed with the security vendor who is aware that this type of file routinely triggers this alert.
Based on this information, the security analyst acknowledges this alert Which of the following event classifications is MOST likely the reason for this action?
- A. False negative
- B. False positive
- C. Non-automated response
- D. True negative
Answer: B
Explanation:
The security analyst acknowledges this alert because it is a false positive. A false positive is an event classification that indicates a benign or normal activity is mistakenly flagged as malicious or suspicious by the SIEM system. A false positive can occur due to misconfigured rules, outdated signatures, or faulty algorithms.
A false positive can waste the security analyst's time and resources, so it is important to acknowledge and dismiss it after verifying that it is not a real threat. Verified References:
* https://www.ibm.com/topics/siem
* https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-siem
* https://www.splunk.com/en_us/data-insider/what-is-siem.html
NEW QUESTION # 152
A web service provider has just taken on a very large contract that comes with requirements that are currently not being implemented in order to meet contractual requirements, the company must achieve the following thresholds
* 99 99% uptime
* Load time in 3 seconds
* Response time = <1 0 seconds
Starting with the computing environment, which of the following should a security engineer recommend to BEST meet the requirements? (Select THREE)
- A. Installing a firewall at corporate headquarters
- B. Deploying a content delivery network
- C. Utilizing redundant power for all developer workstations
- D. Implementing RAID on the backup servers
- E. Implementing server clusters
- F. Lowering storage input/output
- G. Ensuring technological diversity on critical servers
- H. Employing bare-metal loading of applications
Answer: B,E,F
Explanation:
To meet the contractual requirements of the web service provider, a security engineer should recommend the following actions:
* Deploying a content delivery network (CDN): A CDN is a distributed system of servers that delivers web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the content, and the performance of the network. A CDN can help improve the uptime, load time, and response time of web services by caching content closer to the users, reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. A CDN can also help mitigate distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks by absorbing or filtering malicious traffic before it reaches the origin servers, reducing the impact on the web service availability12.
* Implementing server clusters: A server cluster is a group of servers that work together to provide high availability, scalability, and load balancing for web services. A server cluster can help improve the uptime, load time, and response time of web services by distributing the workload across multiple servers, reducing the risk of single points of failure and performance bottlenecks. A server cluster can also help recover from failures by automatically switching to another server in case of a malfunction34.
* Lowering storage input/output (I/O): Storage I/O is the amount of data that can be read from or written to a storage device in a given time. Storage I/O can affect the performance of web services by limiting the speed of data transfer between the servers and the storage devices. Lowering storage I/O can help improve the load time and response time of web services by reducing the latency and congestion of data access. Lowering storage I/O can be achieved by using faster storage devices, such as solid-state drives (SSDs), optimizing the storage layout and configuration, such as using RAID or striping, and caching frequently accessed data in memory5 .
Installing a firewall at corporate headquarters is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can help improve the security of web services by preventing unauthorized access and attacks, but it may also introduce additional latency and complexity to the network.
Employing bare-metal loading of applications is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Bare-metal loading is a technique that allows applications to run directly on hardware without an operating system or a hypervisor. Bare-metal loading can help improve the performance and efficiency of applications by eliminating the overhead and interference of other software layers, but it may also increase the difficulty and cost of deployment and maintenance.
Implementing RAID on the backup servers is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a technique that combines multiple disks into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or both. RAID can help improve the availability and security of backup data by protecting it from disk failures or corruption, but it may also introduce additional complexity and overhead to the backup process.
Utilizing redundant power for all developer workstations is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Redundant power is a technique that provides multiple sources of power for an IT system in case one fails. Redundant power can help improve the availability and reliability of developer workstations by preventing them from losing power due to outages or surges, but it may also increase the cost and energy consumption of the system.
Ensuring technological diversity on critical servers is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services.
Technological diversity is a technique that uses different types of hardware, software, or platforms in an IT environment. Technological diversity can help improve resilience by reducing single points of failure and increasing compatibility, but it may also introduce additional complexity and inconsistency to the environment. References: What Is CDN? How Does CDN Work? | Imperva, What Is Server Clustering? | IBM, What Is Server Clustering? | IBM, Server Clustering: What It Is & How It Works | Liquid Web, Storage I/O Performance - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics, [How to Improve Storage I/O Performance | StarWind Blog], [What Is Firewall Security? | Cisco], [What is Bare Metal? | IBM], [What is RAID? | Dell Technologies US], [What Is Redundant Power Supply? | Dell Technologies US], [Technological Diversity - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]
NEW QUESTION # 153
A developer implement the following code snippet.
Which of the following vulnerabilities does the code snippet resolve?
- A. SQL inject
- B. Missing session limit
- C. Information leakage
- D. Buffer overflow
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
SQL injection is a type of vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute malicious SQL commands on a database by inserting them into an input field. The code snippet resolves this vulnerability by using parameterized queries, which prevent the input from being interpreted as part of the SQL command. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide ,
https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection
NEW QUESTION # 154
A security analyst is assessing a new application written in Jav
a. The security analyst must determine which vulnerabilities exist during runtime. Which of the following would provide the most exhaustive list of vulnerabilities while meeting the objective?
- A. Fuzz testing
- B. Dynamic analysis
- C. Side-channel analysis
- D. Static analysis
- E. Input validation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Step by Step
Dynamic analysis involves testing the application while it is running to identify vulnerabilities present during execution, providing the most exhaustive runtime vulnerability detection.
Input validation is a specific security control, not a method for exhaustive testing.
Side-channel analysis examines unintended information leakage but does not comprehensively assess runtime vulnerabilities.
Fuzz testing is a specific technique within dynamic analysis but does not ensure exhaustive coverage.
Static analysis examines code without execution, missing runtime-specific vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 155
A security operations center analyst is investigating anomalous activity between a database server and an unknown external IP address and gathered the following data:
- dbadmin last logged in at 7:30 a.m. and logged out at 8:05 a.m.
- A persistent TCP/6667 connection to the external address was
established at 7:55 a.m. The connection is still active.
- Other than bytes transferred to keep the connection alive, only a few kilobytes of data transfer every hour since the start of the connection.
- A sample outbound request payload from PCAP showed the ASCII content:
"JOIN #community".
Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause?
- A. A SQL injection was used to exfiltrate data from the database server.
- B. The system has been hijacked for cryptocurrency mining.
- C. The dbadmin user is consulting the community for help via Internet Relay Chat.
- D. A botnet Trojan is installed on the database server.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 156
A security engineer needs to review the configurations of several devices on the network to meet the following requirements:
* The PostgreSQL server must only allow connectivity in the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet.
* The SSH daemon on the database server must be configured to listen
to port 4022.
* The SSH daemon must only accept connections from a Single
workstation.
* All host-based firewalls must be disabled on all workstations.
* All devices must have the latest updates from within the past eight
days.
* All HDDs must be configured to secure data at rest.
* Cleartext services are not allowed.
* All devices must be hardened when possible.
Instructions:
Click on the various workstations and network devices to review the posture assessment results. Remediate any possible issues or indicate that no issue is found.
Click on Server A to review output data. Select commands in the appropriate tab to remediate connectivity problems to the pOSTGREsql DATABASE VIA ssh
WAP A
PC A
Laptop A
Switch A
Switch B:
Laptop B
PC B
PC C
Server A
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation below for the solution.
Explanation:
WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic
This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.
Laptop A: Patch management
This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.
Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
Laptop B: Disable unneeded services
This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.
PC B: Enable disk encryption
This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B's data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.
PC C: Disable unneeded services
This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:
sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config
Server A. Need to select the following:
A black and white screen with white text Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION # 157
A cybersecurity analyst receives a ticket that indicates a potential incident is occurring. There has been a large in log files generated by a generated by a website containing a ''Contact US'' form. The analyst must determine if the increase in website traffic is due to a recent marketing campaign of if this is a potential incident. Which of the following would BEST assist the analyst?
- A. Running the website log files through a log reduction and analysis tool
- B. Ensuring proper input validation is configured on the ''Contact US'' form
- C. Deploy a WAF in front of the public website
- D. Checking for new rules from the inbound network IPS vendor
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 158
Which of the following is a benefit of using steganalysis techniques in forensic response?
- A. Determining the frequency of unique attacks against DRM-protected media
- B. Maintaining chain of custody for acquired evidence
- C. Identifying least significant bit encoding of data in a .wav file
- D. Breaking a symmetric cipher used in secure voice communications
Answer: C
Explanation:
Steganalysis is the process of detecting hidden data in files or media, such as images, audio, or video. One technique of steganalysis is to identify least significant bit encoding, which is a method of hiding data by altering the least significant bits of each byte in a file. For example, a .wav file could contain hidden data encoded in the least significant bits of each audio sample. Steganalysis techniques can help forensic responders to discover hidden evidence or malicious payloads. Breaking a symmetric cipher, determining the frequency of attacks, or maintaining chain of custody are not related to steganalysis. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 159
A networking team was asked to provide secure remote access to all company employees. The team decided to use client-to-site VPN as a solution. During a discussion, the Chief Information Security Officer raised a security concern and asked the networking team to route the Internet traffic of remote users through the main office infrastructure. Doing this would prevent remote users from accessing the Internet through their local networks while connected to the VPN.
Which of the following solutions does this describe?
- A. SSH tunneling
- B. Asymmetric routing
- C. Split tunneling
- D. Full tunneling
Answer: D
Explanation:
Full Tunneling is the solution that routes all Internet traffic of remote users through the main office infrastructure. Asymmetric routing is the technique of sending different types of traffic (such as voice and data) over different paths. SSH tunneling is a secure way to access a remote system by encrypting the traffic between the client and the server. Split tunneling is the process of allowing traffic to go to certain destinations without being routed through the VPN.
NEW QUESTION # 160
The Chief Security Officer (CSO) requested the security team implement technical controls that meet the following requirements:
* Monitors traffic to and from both local NAS and cloud-based file repositories
* Prevents on-site staff who are accessing sensitive customer Pll documents on file repositories from accidentally or deliberately sharing sensitive documents on personal Saa$S solutions
* Uses document attributes to reduce false positives
* Is agentless and not installed on staff desktops or laptops
Which of the following when installed and configured would BEST meet the CSO's requirements? (Select TWO).
- A. HIPS
- B. NGFW
- C. DLP
- D. UEBA
- E. UTM
- F. CASB
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
Explanation
DLP, or data loss prevention, and CASB, or cloud access security broker, are the solutions that when installed and configured would best meet the CSO's requirements. DLP is a technology that monitors and prevents unauthorized or accidental data leakage or exfiltration from an organization's network or devices. DLP can use document attributes, such as metadata, keywords, or fingerprints, to identify and classify sensitive data and enforce policies on how they can be accessed, transferred, or shared. CASB is a technology that acts as a proxy or intermediary between an organization's cloud services and its users. CASB can provide visibility, compliance, threat protection, and data security for cloud-based applications and data. CASB can also prevent on-site staff from accessing personal SaaS solutions that are not authorized by the organization.
References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 281-282 and 424-425]
NEW QUESTION # 161
A security consultant has been asked to recommend a secure network design that would:
* Permit an existing OPC server to communicate with a new Modbus server that is controlling electrical relays.
* Limit operational disruptions.
Due to the limitations within the Modbus protocol, which of the following configurations should the security engineer recommend as part of the solution?
- A. Restrict outbound traffic so that only the OPC server is permitted to reach the Modbus server on port 102.
- B. Restrict inbound traffic so that only the OPC server is permitted to reach the Modbus server on port 502.
- C. Restrict inbound traffic so that only the OPC server is permitted to reach the Modbus server on port 135.
- D. Restrict outbound traffic so that only the OPC server is permitted to reach the Modbus server on port 5000.
Answer: B
Explanation:
OPC (Open Platform Communications) and Modbus are two common protocols used for industrial control systems (ICS). OPC is a standard that allows different devices and applications to exchange data in a vendor-neutral way. Modbus is a serial communication protocol that enables devices to send and receive commands and data over a network. Modbus has two variants: Modbus TCP/IP, which uses TCP port 502 for communication, and Modbus RTU/ASCII, which uses serial ports.
To allow an OPC server to communicate with a Modbus server that is controlling electrical relays, the security engineer should recommend restricting inbound traffic so that only the OPC server is permitted to reach the Modbus server on port 502. This configuration would:
Permit the OPC server to send commands and data to the Modbus server using Modbus TCP/IP protocol over port 502.
Limit operational disruptions, by preventing unauthorized or malicious access to the Modbus server from other sources.
Due to the limitations within the Modbus protocol, such as lack of encryption and authentication, restricting inbound traffic is a necessary security measure to protect the integrity and availability of the ICS.
NEW QUESTION # 162
A major broadcasting company that requires continuous availability to streaming content needs to be resilient against DDoS attacks Which of the following is the MOST important infrastructure security design element to prevent an outage7
- A. Leveraging content delivery network across multiple regions
- B. Supporting heterogeneous architecture
- C. Ensuring cloud autoscaling is in place
- D. Scaling horizontally to handle increases in traffic
Answer: A
Explanation:
A content delivery network (CDN) is a distributed system of servers that delivers web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the content, and the performance of the network. A CDN can help improve the availability and performance of web applications by caching content closer to the users, reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. A CDN can also help mitigate distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks by absorbing or filtering malicious traffic before it reaches the origin servers, reducing the impact on the application availability. Supporting heterogeneous architecture means using different types of hardware, software, or platforms in an IT environment. This can help improve resilience by reducing single points of failure and increasing compatibility, but it does not directly prevent DDoS attacks. Ensuring cloud autoscaling is in place means using cloud services that automatically adjust the amount of resources allocated to an application based on the demand or load. This can help improve scalability and performance by providing more resources when needed, but it does not directly prevent DDoS attacks. Scaling horizontally means adding more servers or nodes to an IT environment to increase its capacity or throughput. This can help improve scalability and performance by distributing the load across multiple servers, but it does not directly prevent DDoS attacks. Reference: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.4: Select controls based on systems security evaluation models
NEW QUESTION # 163
A product development team has submitted code snippets for review prior to release.
INSTRUCTIONS
Analyze the code snippets, and then select one vulnerability, and one fix for each code snippet.
Code Snippet 1
Code Snippet 2
Vulnerability 1:
SQL injection
Cross-site request forgery
Server-side request forgery
Indirect object reference
Cross-site scripting
Fix 1:
Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Perform output encoding of queryResponse,
Ensure usex:ia belongs to logged-in user.
Inspect URLS and disallow arbitrary requests.
Implement anti-forgery tokens.
Vulnerability 2
1) Denial of service
2) Command injection
3) SQL injection
4) Authorization bypass
5) Credentials passed via GET
Fix 2
A) Implement prepared statements and bind
variables.
B) Remove the serve_forever instruction.
C) Prevent the "authenticated" value from being overridden by a GET parameter.
D) HTTP POST should be used for sensitive parameters.
E) Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation below for the solution
Explanation:
Code Snippet 1
Vulnerability 1: SQL injection
SQL injection is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that interacts with a database. An attacker can inject malicious SQL commands into the input fields, such as username or password, and execute them on the database server. This can result in data theft, data corruption, or unauthorized access.
Fix 1: Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Input sanitization is a technique that prevents SQL injection by validating and filtering the user input values before passing them to the database. The input sanitization should remove any special characters, such as quotes, semicolons, or dashes, that can alter the intended SQL query. Alternatively, the input sanitization can use a whitelist of allowed values and reject any other values.
Code Snippet 2
Vulnerability 2: Cross-site request forgery
Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that handles web requests. An attacker can trick a user into sending a malicious web request to a server that performs an action on behalf of the user, such as changing their password, transferring funds, or deleting dat a. This can result in unauthorized actions, data loss, or account compromise.
Fix 2: Implement anti-forgery tokens.
Anti-forgery tokens are techniques that prevent CSRF by adding a unique and secret value to each web request that is generated by the server and verified by the server before performing the action. The anti-forgery token should be different for each user and each session, and should not be predictable or reusable by an attacker. This way, only legitimate web requests from the user's browser can be accepted by the server.
NEW QUESTION # 164
Which of the following is a benefit of using steganalysis techniques in forensic response?
- A. Determining the frequency of unique attacks against DRM-protected media
- B. Maintaining chain of custody for acquired evidence
- C. Identifying least significant bit encoding of data in a .wav file
- D. Breaking a symmetric cipher used in secure voice communications
Answer: C
Explanation:
Steganalysis is the process of detecting hidden data in files or media, such as images, audio, or video. One technique of steganalysis is to identify least significant bit encoding, which is a method of hiding data by altering the least significant bits of each byte in a file. For example, a .wav file could contain hidden data encoded in the least significant bits of each audio sample. Steganalysis techniques can help forensic responders to discover hidden evidence or malicious payloads. Breaking a symmetric cipher, determining the frequency of attacks, or maintaining chain of custody are not related to steganalysis. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 165
A security analyst is reviewing the following output:
Which of the following would BEST mitigate this type of attack?
- A. Installing a network firewall
- B. Placing a WAF inline
- C. Implementing an IDS
- D. Deploying a honeypot
Answer: B
Explanation:
The output shows a SQL injection attack that is trying to exploit a web application. A WAF (Web Application Firewall) is a security solution that can detect and block malicious web requests, such as SQL injection, XSS, CSRF, etc. Placing a WAF inline would prevent the attack from reaching the web server and database.
References:
https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injectionhttps://www.cloudflare.com/learning/ddos/glossary/w
NEW QUESTION # 166
During a software assurance assessment, an engineer notices the source code contains multiple instances of strcpy. which does not verify the buffer length. Which of the following solutions should be integrated into the SDLC process to reduce future risks?
- A. Update the company's secure coding policy to exclude insecure functions.
- B. Require custom IDS/IPS detection signatures for each type of insecure function found.
- C. Perform DAST/SAST scanning before handoff to another team.
- D. Perform a penetration test before moving to the next step of the SDLC.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The source code in this scenario uses insecure functions like strcpy which are known for not checking buffer sizes, leading to buffer overflow vulnerabilities. The most effective solution is to update the company's secure coding policy to prohibit the use of insecure functions and replace them with safer alternatives, such as strncpy, which enforces buffer length checks. Integrating this change into the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) ensures that future code adheres to secure practices, thereby reducing the risk of vulnerabilities being introduced into production systems. This approach aligns with CASP+ guidelines that emphasize secure coding practices and policies to prevent common security flaws in software development.
Reference:
CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 - Enterprise Security Operations (Secure Coding Standards) CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Secure Coding and Prevention of Buffer Overflows
NEW QUESTION # 167
A company suspects a web server may have been infiltrated by a rival corporation. The security engineer reviews the web server logs and finds the following:
The security engineer looks at the code with a developer, and they determine the log entry is created when the following line is run:
Which of the following is an appropriate security control the company should implement?
- A. Restrict directory permission to read-only access.
- B. Use server-side processing to avoid XSS vulnerabilities in path input.
- C. Parameterize a query in the path variable to prevent SQL injection.
- D. Separate the items in the system call to prevent command injection.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The company using the wrong port is the most likely root cause of why secure LDAP is not working. Secure LDAP is a protocol that provides secure communication between clients and servers using LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol), which is a protocol that allows querying and modifying directory services over TCP/IP. Secure LDAP uses SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) or TLS (Transport Layer Security) to encrypt LDAP traffic and prevent unauthorized disclosure or interception.
NEW QUESTION # 168
A security engineer needs to ensure production containers are automatically scanned for vulnerabilities before they are accepted into the production environment. Which of the following should the engineer use to automatically incorporate vulnerability scanning on every commit?
- A. CI/CD pipeline
- B. Integrated development environment
- C. Container orchestrator
- D. Code repository
Answer: A
Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
* CI/CD pipeline (Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment) automates the testing, including vulnerability scanning, for every code commit before deploying to production.
* Code repository stores the code but does not handle scanning.
* Integrated development environment (IDE) aids developers in writing and testing code but does not enforce automated scanning.
* Container orchestrator manages container deployment but does not directly address pre-production scanning.
Reference: CASP+ Exam Objectives 3.6 - Integrate automated security tools into the development process.
NEW QUESTION # 169
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