Free CAS-004 Questions for CompTIA CAS-004 Exam [Nov-2023]
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Why is the CompTIA CAS-004 certification difficult to write?
The CompTIA CAS-004 exam is difficult to write because it tests your knowledge of today's complex computer technologies not your knowledge of those technologies from 4 years ago. Many IT professionals have complained that the CompTIA CAS-004 certification exam doesn't adequately test your knowledge of today's complex computer technologies and as a result they end up having to retake the exam several times before they pass.
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NEW QUESTION # 38
All staff at a company have started working remotely due to a global pandemic. To transition to remote work, the company has migrated to SaaS collaboration tools. The human resources department wants to use these tools to process sensitive information but is concerned the data could be:
Leaked to the media via printing of the documents
Sent to a personal email address
Accessed and viewed by systems administrators
Uploaded to a file storage site
Which of the following would mitigate the department's concerns?
- A. Proxy, secure VPN, endpoint encryption, and AV
- B. Watermarking, forward proxy, DLP, and MFA
- C. Data loss detection, reverse proxy, EDR, and PGP
- D. VDI, proxy, CASB, and DRM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
VDI (virtual desktop infrastructure), proxy, CASB (cloud access security broker), and DRM (digital rights management) are technologies that can mitigate the concerns of processing sensitive information using SaaS (software as a service) collaboration tools. VDI is a technology that provides virtualized desktop environments for users that are hosted and managed by a central server, allowing users to access applications or data from any device or location. VDI can prevent data leakage to the media via printing of documents, as it can restrict or monitor the printing capabilities or permissions of users or devices. Proxy is a technology that acts as an intermediary between clients and servers, filtering or modifying web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. Proxy can prevent data leakage to a personal email address, as it can block or redirect web requests to unauthorized or untrusted email domains or services. CASB is a technology that provides visibility and control over cloud services or applications, enforcing security policies or compliance requirements based on predefined rules or criteria. CASB can prevent data access and viewing by systems administrators, as it can encrypt or mask sensitive data before it reaches the cloud provider or application, making it unreadable or inaccessible by unauthorized parties. DRM is a technology that restricts the access, use, modification, or distribution of digital content or devices, enforcing the rights and permissions granted by the content owner or provider to authorized users or devices. DRM can prevent data upload to a file storage site, as it can limit or disable the copying, sharing, or transferring capabilities or permissions of users or devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-vdi
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following BEST sets expectation between the security team and business units within an organization?
- A. Business partnership agreement
- B. Services level agreement
- C. Business impact analysis
- D. Risk assessment
- E. Memorandum of understanding
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A service level agreement (SLA) is the best option to set expectations between the security team and business units within an organization. An SLA is a document that defines the scope, quality, roles, responsibilities, and metrics of a service provided by one party to another. An SLA can help align the security team's objectives and activities with the business units' needs and expectations, as well as establish accountability and communication channels. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide ,
https://searchitchannel.techtarget.com/definition/service-level-agreement
NEW QUESTION # 40
In preparation for the holiday season, a company redesigned the system that manages retail sales and moved it to a cloud service provider. The new infrastructure did not meet the company's availability requirements.
During a postmortem analysis, the following issues were highlighted:
1. International users reported latency when images on the web page were initially loading.
2. During times of report processing, users reported issues with inventory when attempting to place orders.
3. Despite the fact that ten new API servers were added, the load across servers was heavy at peak times.
Which of the following infrastructure design changes would be BEST for the organization to implement to avoid these issues in the future?
- A. Serve static-content object storage across different regions, increase the instance size on the managed relational database, and distribute the ten API servers across multiple regions.
- B. Increase the bandwidth for the server that delivers images, use a CDN, change the database to a non-relational database, and split the ten API servers across two load balancers.
- C. Serve images from an object storage bucket with infrequent read times, replicate the database across different regions, and dynamically create API servers based on load.
- D. Serve static content via distributed CDNs, create a read replica of the central database and pull reports from there, and auto-scale API servers based on performance.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 41
A vulnerability analyst identified a zero-day vulnerability in a company's internally developed software. Since the current vulnerability management system does not have any checks for this vulnerability, an engineer has been asked to create one.
Which of the following would be BEST suited to meet these requirements?
- A. ARF
- B. OVAL
- C. Node.js
- D. ISACs
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 42
A security analyst is reading the results of a successful exploit that was recently conducted by third-party penetration testers. The testers reverse engineered a privileged executable. In the report, the planning and execution of the exploit is detailed using logs and outputs from the test However, the attack vector of the exploit is missing, making it harder to recommend remediation's. Given the following output:
The penetration testers MOST likely took advantage of:
- A. A TOC/TOU vulnerability
- B. An integer overflow vulnerability
- C. A buffer overflow vulnerability
- D. A plain-text password disclosure
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 43
A company has moved its sensitive workloads lo the cloud and needs to ensure high availability and resiliency of its web-based application. The cloud architecture team was given the following requirements
* The application must run at 70% capacity at all times
* The application must sustain DoS and DDoS attacks.
* Services must recover automatically.
Which of the following should the cloud architecture team implement? (Select THREE).
- A. CDN
- B. BCP
- C. Containenzation
- D. Autoscaling
- E. Read-only replicas
- F. Continuous snapshots
- G. Encryption
- H. WAF
Answer: D,G,H
Explanation:
The cloud architecture team should implement Autoscaling (C), WAF (D) and Encryption (F). Autoscaling (C) will ensure that the application is running at 70% capacity at all times. WAF (D) will protect the application from DoS and DDoS attacks. Encryption (F) will protect the data from unauthorized access and ensure that the sensitive workloads remain secure.
NEW QUESTION # 44
A company wants to use a process to embed a sign of ownership covertly inside a proprietary document without adding any identifying attributes. Which of the following would be BEST to use as part of the process to support copyright protections of the document?
- A. Steganography
- B. E-signature
- C. Watermarking
- D. Cryptography
Answer: A
Explanation:
Steganography would be the best choice in this scenario. Steganography is the practice of hiding information within other information, such as embedding a message inside an image or other file format. This would allow the company to embed a sign of ownership within the document without adding any visible or identifiable attributes. It would also make it more difficult for someone to remove or alter the sign of ownership.
NEW QUESTION # 45
A large number of emails have been reported, and a security analyst is reviewing the following information from the emails:
As part of the image process, which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take?
- A. Block the email address carl b@comptia1 com, as it is sending spam to subject matter experts
- B. Validate the final "Received" header against the DNS entry of the domain.
- C. Ignore the emails, as SPF validation is successful, and it is a false positive
- D. Compare the 'Return-Path" and "Received" fields.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 46
A security engineer needs to recommend a solution that will meet the following requirements:
Identify sensitive data in the provider's network
Maintain compliance with company and regulatory guidelines
Detect and respond to insider threats, privileged user threats, and compromised accounts Enforce datacentric security, such as encryption, tokenization, and access control Which of the following solutions should the security engineer recommend to address these requirements?
- A. DLP
- B. CASB
- C. SWG
- D. WAF
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
DLP (data loss prevention) is a solution that can meet the following requirements: identify sensitive data in the provider's network, maintain compliance with company and regulatory guidelines, detect and respond to insider threats, privileged user threats, and compromised accounts, and enforce data-centric security, such as encryption, tokenization, and access control. DLP can monitor, classify, and protect data in motion, at rest, or in use, and prevent unauthorized disclosure or exfiltration. WAF (web application firewall) is a solution that can protect web applications from common attacks, such as SQL injection or cross-site scripting, but it does not address the requirements listed. CASB (cloud access security broker) is a solution that can enforce policies and controls for accessing cloud services and applications, but it does not address the requirements listed.
SWG (secure web gateway) is a solution that can monitor and filter web traffic to prevent malicious or unauthorized access, but it does not address the requirements listed. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-loss-prevention
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guid
NEW QUESTION # 47
A product manager is concerned about the unintentional sharing of the company's intellectual property through employees' use of social media. Which of the following would BEST mitigate this risk?
- A. Virtual desktop environment
- B. Web application firewall
- C. Web content filter
- D. Network segmentation
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 48
A health company has reached the physical and computing capabilities in its datacenter, but the computing demand continues to increase. The infrastructure is fully virtualized and runs custom and commercial healthcare application that process sensitive health and payment information. Which of the following should the company implement to ensure it can meet the computing demand while complying with healthcare standard for virtualization and cloud computing?
- A. Pass solution in a multinency cloud
- B. Private SaaS solution in a single tenancy cloud.
- C. SaaS solution in a community cloud
- D. Hybrid IaaS solution in a single-tenancy cloud
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 49
A large enterprise with thousands of users is experiencing a relatively high frequency of malicious activity from the insider threats. Much of the activity appears to involve internal reconnaissance that results in targeted attacks against privileged users and network file shares. Given this scenario, which of the following would MOST likely prevent or deter these attacks? (Choose two.)
- A. Modify the existing rules of behavior to include an explicit statement prohibiting users from enumerating user and file directories using available tools and/or accessing visible resources that do not directly pertain to their job functions
- B. Enforce command shell restrictions via group policies for all workstations by default to limit which native operating system tools are available for use
- C. For all workstations, implement full-disk encryption and configure UEFI instances to require complex passwords for authentication
- D. Increase the frequency at which host operating systems are scanned for vulnerabilities, and decrease the amount of time permitted between vulnerability identification and the application of corresponding patches
- E. Implement application blacklisting enforced by the operating systems of all machines in the enterprise
- F. Conduct role-based training for privileged users that highlights common threats against them and covers best practices to thwart attacks
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 50
A university issues badges through a homegrown identity management system to all staff and students. Each week during the summer, temporary summer school students arrive and need to be issued a badge to access minimal campus resources. The security team received a report from an outside auditor indicating the homegrown system is not consistent with best practices in the security field and leaves the institution vulnerable.
Which of the following should the security team recommend FIRST?
- A. Investigating a potential threat identified in logs related to the identity management system
- B. Working with procurement and creating a requirements document to select a new IAM system/vendor
- C. Beginning research on two-factor authentication to later introduce into the identity management system
- D. Updating the identity management system to use discretionary access control
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 51
An organization is planning for disaster recovery and continuity of operations.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the following scenarios and instructions. Match each relevant finding to the affected host.
After associating scenario 3 with the appropriate host(s), click the host to select the appropriate corrective action for that finding.
Each finding may be used more than once.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 52
A security analyst is investigating a series of suspicious emails by employees to the security team. The email appear to come from a current business partner and do not contain images or URLs. No images or URLs were stripped from the message by the security tools the company uses instead, the emails only include the following in plain text.
Which of the following should the security analyst perform?
- A. Contact the security department at the business partner and alert them to the email event.
- B. Configure the email gateway to automatically quarantine all messages originating from the business partner.
- C. Pull the devices of the affected employees from the network in case they are infected with a zero-day virus.
- D. Block the IP address for the business partner at the perimeter firewall.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 53
A company undergoing digital transformation is reviewing the resiliency of a CSP and is concerned about meeting SLA requirements in the event of a CSP incident. Which of the following would be BEST to proceed with the transformation?
- A. A multicloud provider solution
- B. A load balancer with a round-robin configuration
- C. An on-premises solution as a backup
- D. An active-active solution within the same tenant
Answer: A
Explanation:
Implementing a multicloud provider solution would be the best option to ensure resiliency and meet SLA requirements in the event of a CSP incident. A multicloud provider solution involves using multiple cloud service providers to host and manage different parts of an organization's infrastructure and applications. This approach allows the organization to spread its workloads across multiple providers, providing increased resilience and the ability to continue operations in the event that one provider experiences an incident. In addition, using multiple providers can also help to reduce the risk of vendor lock-in, allowing the organization to more easily switch providers if needed.
NEW QUESTION # 54
A development team created a mobile application that contacts a company's back-end APIs housed in a PaaS environment. The APIs have been experiencing high processor utilization due to scraping activities. The security engineer needs to recommend a solution that will prevent and remedy the behavior.
Which of the following would BEST safeguard the APIs? (Choose two.)
- A. Bot protection
- B. OAuth 2.0
- C. Input validation
- D. CSRF protection
- E. Rate limiting
- F. Autoscaling endpoints
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Although I might agree that OAuth 2.0 could be an answer as well, since it can help with rate limiting by accepting only authorized traffic, this is not as specific as it should be for the proposed scenario.
Bot protection is a security measure that helps prevent automated scraping activities by detecting and blocking malicious bots that attempt to access the APIs. This can help reduce the processor utilization on the APIs and prevent scraping activities from affecting the performance of the system.
Rate limiting is a security measure that limits the number of requests that can be made to an API within a given time period. By implementing rate limiting, the security engineer can help prevent scraping activities that may cause high processor utilization on the APIs.
NEW QUESTION # 55
An organization recently recovered from an attack that featured an adversary injecting malicious logic into OS bootloaders on endpoint devices. Therefore, the organization decided to require the use of TPM for measured boot and attestation, monitoring each component from the UEFI through the full loading of OS components. Which of the following TPM structures enables this storage functionality?
- A. Endorsement tickets
- B. Clock/counter structures
- C. Command tag structures with MAC schemes
- D. Platform configuration registers
Answer: D
Explanation:
Platform configuration register (PCR) hash: A PCR hash is versatile memory that stores data hashes for the sealing function. Sealing, on the other hand, "seals" the system state to a particular hardware and software configuration.
NEW QUESTION # 56
A vulnerability assessment endpoint generated a report of the latest findings.
A security analyst needs to review the report and create a priority list of items that must be addressed.
Which of the following should the analyst use to create the list quickly?
- A. CVE dates
- B. CVSS scores
- C. OVAL
- D. Business impact rating
Answer: B
Explanation:
CVSS scores (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) should be used to create a priority list of items that must be addressed. The CVSS is a standardized scoring system that is used to assess the severity of vulnerabilities based on a number of factors, including the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability, as well as the ease of exploit and the likelihood of an attack. Vulnerabilities are assigned a score on a scale of 0.0 to 10.0, with higher scores indicating a greater level of severity. By reviewing the CVSS scores of the vulnerabilities identified in the report, the security analyst can quickly determine which ones are the most critical and should be addressed first. Other factors, such as the business impact rating and the potential impact on the organization's operations, may also be taken into account when prioritizing patches.
NEW QUESTION # 57
An organization recently recovered from an attack that featured an adversary injecting Malicious logic into OS bootloaders on endpoint devices Therefore, the organization decided to require the use of TPM for measured boot and attestation, monitoring each component from the IJEFI through the full loading of OS components. of the following TPM structures enables this storage functionality?
- A. Endorsement tickets
- B. Clock/counter structures
- C. Command tag structures with MAC schemes
- D. Platform configuration registers
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
TPMs provide the ability to store measurements of code and data that can be used to ensure that code and data remain unchanged over time. This is done through Platform Configuration Registers (PCRs), which are structures used to store measurements of code and data. The measurements are taken during the boot process and can be used to compare the state of the system at different times, which can be used to detect any changes to the system and verify that the system has not been tampered with.
NEW QUESTION # 58
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