NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0 Certification – Valid Exam Dumps Questions Study Guide! (Updated 35 Questions)
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NEW QUESTION # 19
Refer to the exhibit:
You are asked to block applications based on hash attributes. Which two factors must you consider when applying the hash value? (Choose two answers)
- A. Hashes must be used with at least one attribute, such as a filename or path.
- B. Hashes must be line-separated.
- C. Hashes must be unique to each application.
- D. Hashes must follow supported formats.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that when manually adding applications to be blocked, you can define the application using Hash or using any combination of File Name / Path / Signer attributes. This means hashes can be used independently and do not require filename, path, or signer attributes.
The guide also states that each hash is a unique identifier of an individual application, and the exhibit itself shows the hash field note: "SHA-1 or SHA-2 or MD5." Therefore, the hash must use a supported hash format, making D correct.
For multiple hash entries, the uploaded guide text says they must be comma separated , while the exhibit note says "You can enter multiple hashes comma separated." So the technically exact guide wording supports comma separation, not line separation. However, given your answer choices, A is clearly trying to test the requirement that multiple hashes must be separated correctly. The option wording says "line- separated," which is not exact against the guide; the better wording would be comma-separated . Since no
"comma-separated" option is provided, A is the intended separation-related answer, but the wording is flawed.
Option B is definitely wrong because hash mode is an alternative to attributes. Option C is also not the best answer because, although each hash uniquely identifies a file/application variant, the operational requirement is not that "hashes must be unique to each application" in the way the option implies. Hashes may represent different variants of the same application.
NEW QUESTION # 20
A company requires a global communication policy for a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment. Which recommendation must you make? (Choose one answer)
- A. Create a new communication control policy and delegate it to other organizations.
- B. Create a separate communication control policy for each organization.
- C. Create a new communication control policy and apply it to multiple organizations.
- D. Create a new communication control policy and assign it globally to all organizations.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Create a separate communication control policy for each organization .
The key point is that Communication Control is not available in Hoster view . In a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment, Hoster view is the view used to display information for all organizations together. However, the guide clearly states under the Hoster view section: "Communication Control - The Communication Control window is not available in Hoster view." That means you cannot create one global Communication Control policy from Hoster view and assign it across all organizations. Options B , C , and D all assume cross-organization/global Communication Control policy assignment, but the guide does not support that capability. The practical recommendation is to configure Communication Control policies separately inside each organization.
The guide contrasts this with Security Policies, where in Hoster view the Security Policies page displays all policies from all organizations and supports cloning a security policy from one organization to another. That statement is for Security Policies , not Communication Control policies.
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NEW QUESTION # 21
A collector attempts to access a known malicious website. FortiEDR is configured for eXtended detection with FortiAnalyzer. What two roles does Fortinet Cloud Services (FCS) perform in this process? (Choose two answers)
- A. FCS sends a log record to FortiAnalyzer.
- B. FCS sends OS metadata to the FortiEDR manager.
- C. FCS correlates and analyzes the collected logs.
- D. FCS identifies if a malicious event has taken place and reports the detection incident.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The guide states that for eXtended Detection Source integration, FortiEDR connects to external systems to collect activity logs. The aggregated data is then sent to Fortinet Cloud Services (FCS) , where it is correlated and analyzed to detect malicious indications. Those malicious indications result in security events for eXtended Detection policy rule violations .
For FortiAnalyzer/FortiAnalyzer Cloud specifically, the guide states that this integration is used to correlate data between FortiEDR and the Fortinet Security Fabric and issue eXtended Detection alerts .
Option A is wrong because FCS does not send the original log record to FortiAnalyzer. FortiAnalyzer is the external source whose data is correlated with FortiEDR data. Option B is wrong because OS metadata is collected by the Collector and handled through FortiEDR components; the FCS role here is cloud-side enrichment, correlation, and detection, not sending OS metadata back to the manager.
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NEW QUESTION # 22
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the FortiEDR status output shown in the exhibit, what are two reasons for the degraded state?
(Choose two answers)
- A. The collector is installed with an incorrect port number.
- B. The collector is installed with an incorrect registration password.
- C. The endpoint has windows firewall enabled.
- D. The endpoint cannot reach the central manager.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and C .
The exhibit shows:
FortiEDR Service: Up
FortiEDR Driver: Up
FortiEDR Status: Degraded (no configuration)
This means the local Collector service and driver are running, but the Collector has not received valid configuration. In FortiEDR, a Collector must register and communicate with the FortiEDR Aggregator to receive its configuration. The guide states that the Collector initially sends registration information to the FortiEDR Aggregator using SSL, sends ongoing health/status/security-event information, and receives its configuration from the Aggregator.
During installation, a non-customized Windows Collector requires the correct Aggregator address , Aggregator port 8081 , and registration password . The guide explicitly states that the Aggregator port should be specified as 8081 , and that the registration password must be entered during installation.
Therefore, an incorrect registration password or incorrect port number can prevent proper registration
/configuration retrieval, resulting in a degraded/no-configuration state.
Option A is not the best answer because Windows Firewall being enabled by itself does not automatically cause this FortiEDR status; only if it blocks required FortiEDR communication would it matter, and the option is too generic. Option D is also not correct as written because the Collector receives configuration from the Aggregator , not directly from the Central Manager. The guide describes Collector-to-Aggregator communication for registration and configuration.
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NEW QUESTION # 23
Refer to the exhibits.
You are attempting to move a collector into the High Security Collector Group for isolation but encounter an error in the API request as shown in the exhibit. To successfully isolate the collector, which API parameter must you correct? (Choose one answer)
- A. Set the organization parameter to Default.
- B. Change the HTTP method in the request from PUT to POST.
- C. Update the authorization credentials in the API header.
- D. Set the target collector group parameter to Engineering group.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Set the organization parameter to Default .
From the first exhibit, the API query result for the Collector shows:
* Collector name: Desktop-PC
* Collector group name: Engineering
* Organization: Default
* State: Running
But in the second exhibit, the API request is using:
* organization = Fortinet-Training
* collectors = Desktop-PC
* targetCollectorGroup = High Security Collector Group
That organization value is wrong. The Collector belongs to the Default organization, so the API request must reference the Collector's actual organization. Otherwise FortiEDR cannot locate or move that Collector under the organization specified in the request.
The FortiEDR guide confirms that Collector Groups are used to assign different FortiEDR policies to different Collectors, and that Collectors can be moved between groups/organizations in the Inventory workflow. In Hoster view, FortiEDR shows Collectors from all organizations and allows moving Collectors between organizations, but the organization context must match the Collector being managed.
Option B is wrong because the exhibit shows the API request is authorized; the failure is a 400 Bad Request , not an authentication failure. Option C is wrong because the endpoint shown is already a move/update operation using PUT, and the issue is not the HTTP method. Option D is wrong because Engineering is the current Collector Group. The goal is to move the Collector to High Security Collector Group , so changing the target back to Engineering would not isolate or harden the Collector.
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NEW QUESTION # 24
Refer to the exhibit.
An event exception is shown. Which two statements about the exception are true? (Choose two answers)
- A. The system owner can modify the trigger rules parameters.
- B. A partial exception is applied to this event.
- C. The exception is applied only on device C8092231196.
- D. FCS playbooks are enabled by Fortinet support.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The exhibit shows an exception created/updated by FortinetCloudServices after the file Update.exe was classified as Good . This aligns with the FortiEDR Cloud Service behavior described in the guide. The guide states that once FCS is connected, it can enable Tuning , which means automated security event exception
/allowlisting. After a triggered security event is reclassified as Safe, an automated cross-environment exception can be pushed downstream and the event expires, preventing it from triggering again.
Option C is correct because the Event Exceptions window includes Triggered Rules , and the guide states that when editing an exception, the administrator can modify the Collector Groups , Destinations , Users , and the pairs of rules and processes that define the exception in the Triggered Rules area.
Option D is the Fortinet/FCS-related statement supported by the guide's FCS behavior. The guide says FCS can enable follow-up actions, including Tuning through automated exceptions and Playbook Actions , and that playbook policy remediation actions are based on the final FCS determination.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit explicitly states "All the Raw Data Items are covered." A partial exception would mean not all raw data items are covered. The guide explains that if an exception does not cover all raw data items, FortiEDR displays a different indicator and distinguishes covered from non-covered raw data items.
Option B is wrong because the exception scope in the exhibit is set to All groups , All destinations , and All users . The comment references device C8092231196, but that is not the same as saying the exception applies only to that device.
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NEW QUESTION # 25
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the threat hunting event details shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true?
(Choose two answers)
- A. The PING.EXE process was blocked.
- B. The user fortinet has executed a ping command.
- C. There are no MITRE details available for this event.
- D. The activity event is associated with the file action.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and D .
The exhibit shows a Process Creation activity event where cmd.exe is the source process and PING.EXE is the target process. The displayed Executing user is R2D2-KVM63\fortinet, and the command line shows fortinet.com, which means the user fortinet executed a ping command targeting fortinet.com.
The FortiEDR guide explains that Threat Hunting activity events consist of a source , an action , and a target
. It also states that Process Actions have another process as the target and include process-related actions such as Process Creation .
The exhibit also shows file-related details for the executable, including the executable path, product, SHA1 hash, and command line. In FortiEDR Threat Hunting, process execution events are tied to executable-file metadata, so the event is associated with the executable file involved in the process action. This supports B in the exam's intended wording.
Option A is not reliable because the screenshot does not prove MITRE details are unavailable; it only shows that no MITRE detail is visible in the current portion of the details pane. The guide states that MITRE indications appear when an activity event has related MITRE information.
Option C is wrong because the screenshot shows the process status as Running and does not show a block indicator. A green check does not mean blocked; it indicates a trusted/signed/allowed status context. There is no evidence that PING.EXE was blocked.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, which statement about this threat hunting query is true? (Choose one answer)
- A. The query is configured as a global hunting rule and is automatically visible across all organizations.
- B. The query is limited to detecting network activity and does not inspect process behavior.
- C. A security incident will be generated whenever the device attempts an RDP connection.
- D. RDP connections will be automatically blocked and classified as suspicious.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A .
The exhibit shows a FortiEDR Threat Hunting saved query using RemotePort:3389, scoped to a specific device, with Scheduled Query enabled, classification set to Suspicious , and a repeat interval of 15 minutes .
TCP port 3389 is the standard RDP port, so the query is designed to detect RDP-related network activity for the selected endpoint.
The FortiEDR guide states that saving a Threat Hunting query can define it as a scheduled query to automate threat detection. It further states that when a scheduled query runs and detects matches, a security event is automatically created in the Incidents tab , and notifications are sent according to the security event configuration.
Option B is too absolute and therefore wrong. The specific query shown uses a network field, but Threat Hunting itself can search activity events across files, registry, network, processes, and event logs. Option C is wrong because the Community Query checkbox is not selected, so it is not configured as a shared community
/global query. The guide states that Community Query must be selected to share the query with the FortiEDR community, including other organizations.
Option D is wrong because a scheduled Threat Hunting query generates an incident; it does not automatically block RDP unless additional playbook actions are configured. The guide says scheduled queries generate security events and may trigger configured playbook actions, but the query itself is not a blocking control.
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NEW QUESTION # 27
Which two Python commands are supported when using FortiEDR Connect to directly access a protected device shell? (Choose two answers)
- A. %psexec
- B. %upload_file
- C. %ipconfig_all
- D. %timestamp
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are A. %upload_file and B. %ipconfig_all .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that FortiEDR Connect opens a console that provides direct access to a FortiEDR-protected device through a remote shell connection. This allows administrators to respond to incidents, run commands and scripts, collect and download forensic data, and remediate threats.
The guide also states that the FortiEDR Connect terminal has a prompt where commands can be typed, and the Help button displays the supported commands and their parameters.
The guide further confirms that FortiEDR Connect supports FortiEDR-specific commands, Windows command-line access through %cmd , and Python commands.
For the exact command list, Fortinet's official FortiEDR Connect technical tip lists the supported commands.
In that list, %ipconfig_all is explicitly described as returning extended IP information, and %upload_file is explicitly described as uploading a file to the specified path. ( Fortinet Community ) Options C. %psexec and D. %timestamp are not listed as supported FortiEDR Connect commands in the official Fortinet command list. Therefore, they must not be selected.
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NEW QUESTION # 28
What specific action does FortiEDR take when the Zero Trust Device Tagging playbook is activated?
(Choose one answer)
- A. It updates FortiClient EMS through an API and assigns a classification fabric tag.
- B. It assigns a default tag to all endpoints.
- C. It removes unmanaged endpoints from FortiClient EMS.
- D. It disables the endpoint until a tag is assigned.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is C.
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that Identity Management integration can use FortiClient EMS. The connector requires API credentials or FortiCloud credentials depending on whether FortiClient EMS is on-premises or cloud-based. The guide states that for the out-of-the-box action, such as Zero Trust device tagging on FortiClient EMS, FortiEDR tags the device as non-trusted in the identity management system and specifies the classification tag to apply in the Tag name field.
The guide also lists predefined FortiClient EMS 7.2 or later fabric tags used by FortiEDR, including FortiEDR_Malicious, FortiEDR_PUP, FortiEDR_Suspicious, FortiEDR_Likely_Safe, and FortiEDR_Probably_Good. These tags are used by FortiClient EMS to tag the endpoint based on FortiEDR classification.
Finally, the guide states that to configure the automated response, the administrator must go to Security Settings > Playbooks, open the relevant Playbook policy, and place a checkmark in the relevant classification column next to the Zero Trust device tagging row under Remediation. FortiEDR is then configured to automatically tag a device as non-trusted when a security event is triggered.
Options A, B, and D are wrong. FortiEDR does not remove unmanaged endpoints, does not apply a default tag to every endpoint, and does not disable the endpoint merely until a tag is assigned. The action is API- based FortiClient EMS tagging tied to FortiEDR event classification
NEW QUESTION # 29
Refer to the Exhibit:
A FortiEDR analyst is prioritizing response efforts. One application has a vulnerability score of Critical but an Unknown ACI rating, while another has a Medium vulnerability score with active ACI evidence of adversary targeting. Which application must be addressed first? (Choose one answer)
- A. The application with the Medium vulnerability score and ACI evidence should be addressed first.
- B. The application with the Critical vulnerability score should be addressed first.
- C. Both applications should be treated equally because patching is necessary.
- D. The decision depends only on asset criticality, not scores.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is D .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that FortiEDR displays two severity ratings for applications: NIST Severity and ACI Severity . NIST Severity is based on FortiEDR's vulnerability scoring system using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. ACI Severity, however, is Adversary Centric Intelligence provided by FortiRecon and FortiGuard Threat Analysts, covering dark web, open-source, and technical threat intelligence, including threat actor insights . This helps administrators proactively assess risk, respond faster to incidents, understand attackers, and protect assets.
The guide also states that FortiEDR helps analysts prioritize alerts and incidents using risk factors such as severity of vulnerabilities , relevance of threat intelligence feeds , and severity of affected endpoints , so effort is focused on the most significant organizational risks.
Therefore, the application with Medium NIST severity but active ACI evidence of adversary targeting should be prioritized over an application with Critical NIST severity but Unknown ACI rating , because active adversary-centric intelligence indicates current attacker interest or exploitation relevance. In plain terms: a theoretical critical vulnerability matters, but an actively targeted vulnerability is the fire you put out first.
Option B is tempting but incomplete because it relies only on NIST/CVSS severity. FortiEDR's ACI rating exists specifically to add adversary context to prioritization. Option A is wrong because FortiEDR does not treat all vulnerable applications equally. Option C is wrong because asset criticality can matter, but the guide does not say prioritization depends only on asset criticality.
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NEW QUESTION # 30
An employee leaves the company and no longer has access to the FortiEDR system. You must ensure GDPR compliance regarding the employee's personal data stored in FortiEDR. Which two data types must be removed to meet GDPR requirements? (Choose two answers)
- A. Installed applications
- B. Installed OS name
- C. IP address and MAC address
- D. Device and user name
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A. Device and user name and D. IP address and MAC address .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the GDPR feature is implemented in Administration > Settings > Personal Data Handling . It is used to remove relevant data for an employee or FortiEDR user who no longer has access to or uses the FortiEDR system. The guide explicitly identifies the personal data as device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name . It further states: "You must remove all device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name data from FortiEDR in order to fully comply with the GDPR standard." Therefore, installed applications and installed OS name are not the required GDPR personal data types in this FortiEDR procedure. The required removal is performed iteratively for the employee's/user's device name , IP address , MAC address , and user name . The guide also instructs administrators to continue removing the other required data: IP address, MAC address, and user name , and to delete any reports that may contain the user's data.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Refer to the exhibits.
The application policy logs and application details are shown. Collector C8092231196 is a member of the Finance group. In this scenario, what must you do to block the FileZilla application? (Choose one answer)
- A. Assign the Finance policy to the DBA group.
- B. Deny the application in the Finance policy.
- C. Assign the Finance policy to a broader collector group, such as the Default Collector Group.
- D. Assign the Simulation Communication Control Policy to the DBA group.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Deny the application in the Finance policy .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that Communication Control policies define the actions to be taken for a given application or application version . It also states that each Communication Control policy applies to specific Collector Groups , and all devices that belong to those Collector Groups follow that policy. A Collector Group can be assigned to only one Communication Control policy.
In the exhibit, the Collector C8092231196 is stated to be a member of the Finance group. Therefore, to block FileZilla for that Collector, the application action must be set to Deny under the Finance policy , because that is the policy context that applies to the Collector's group.
The guide also explains that you can modify a policy action for an application/version so that the selected application is explicitly set to Allow or Deny for the relevant policy. When modified this way, the Application
/Version Details area shows the action as manually changed and excluded from the original policy action.
Option A is wrong because assigning a Simulation Communication Control Policy to the DBA group does not affect a Collector in the Finance group. Option C is wrong because assigning the Finance policy to the DBA group would affect DBA Collectors, not the Finance Collector in the scenario. Option D is wrong because assigning the Finance policy to a broader group such as Default Collector Group is unnecessary and could over-broaden the policy impact. The precise action is to deny FileZilla in the policy that applies to the Collector's own group: Finance policy .
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NEW QUESTION # 32
You discovered that a newly installed collector does not display on the Inventory tab in the central manager.
Which two troubleshooting steps must you perform? (Choose two answers)
- A. Export and review the collector logs from the Central Manager for connection errors.
- B. Verify that the central manager can resolve the collector hostname through DNS.
- C. Check whether the FortiEDR services are running on the collector device.
- D. Verify that TCP ports 8081 and 555 are open between the collector and the central manager.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and C .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide has a specific troubleshooting section named "A FortiEDR Collector does not display in the INVENTORY tab." It states that after a Collector is first launched, it registers with the FortiEDR Central Manager and appears in the Inventory tab. If it does not appear, the first checks are to confirm that the device where the Collector is installed is powered on and has Internet connectivity, and to validate that ports 8081 and 555 are available and not blocked by another third-party product.
Option B is therefore correct in the exam sense because ports 8081 and 555 must be open for FortiEDR communication. More precisely, the Collector communicates with the Aggregator on port 8081 and the Core on port 555 , not directly to the Central Manager in every architecture. The option wording says "between the collector and the central manager," which is technically loose, but the required troubleshooting item is still the port availability.
Option C is also correct because the same guide says to check that the endpoint is powered on and connected.
In practical FortiEDR troubleshooting, this includes confirming the FortiEDR Collector service/driver are running on the endpoint; otherwise the Collector cannot register or report health.
Option A is not listed in the FortiEDR guide as a required step for this issue. Option D is not the best answer because the guide says logs are generally retrieved when Fortinet Support requests them, and Collector logs can only be exported for Collectors in Running status; a newly installed Collector that does not appear in Inventory cannot normally be selected from Central Manager for log export.
NEW QUESTION # 33
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Fortinet NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0 Exam Practice Test Questions: https://www.passcollection.com/NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0_real-exams.html

