GET Real CompTIA CS0-002 Exam Questions With 100% Refund Guarantee Sep 22, 2025 [Q190-Q205]

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GET Real CompTIA CS0-002 Exam Questions With 100% Refund Guarantee Sep 22, 2025

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CompTIA CS0-002 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Given a scenario, implement configuration changes to existing controls to improve security
  • Explain the threats and vulnerabilities associated with specialized technology
Topic 2
  • Given a scenario, apply security concepts in support of organizational risk mitigation
  • Explain the importance of threat data and intelligence
Topic 3
  • Given a scenario, utilize basic digital forensics techniques
  • Apply the appropriate incident response procedure
  • Utilize threat intelligence to support organizational security
Topic 4
  • Explain the threats and vulnerabilities associated with operating in the cloud
  • Given a scenario, analyze the output from common vulnerability assessment tools
Topic 5
  • Explain the importance of the incident response process
  • Explain the threats and vulnerabilities associated with operating in the cloud


The CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is ideal for cybersecurity professionals who are looking to advance their careers and demonstrate their expertise in the field. The CS0-002 exam is suitable for those who have a minimum of 4 years of experience in the cybersecurity industry and have a good understanding of network security principles, protocols, and technologies. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is recognized by organizations worldwide, and it is a testament to an individual's commitment to cybersecurity excellence. With the increasing number of cyber threats and attacks, having a CS0-002 certification is crucial for cybersecurity professionals who are looking to stay ahead of the curve and protect their organizations from cyber threats.

 

NEW QUESTION # 190
Which of following allows Secure Boot to be enabled?

  • A. eFuse
  • B. MSM
  • C. UEFI
  • D. PAM

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 191
A development team signed a contract that requires access to an on-premises physical server.
Access must be restricted to authorized users only and cannot be connected to the Internet.
Which of the following solutions would meet this requirement?

  • A. Establish a hosted SSO.
  • B. Virtualize the server.
  • C. Air gap the server.
  • D. Implement a CASB.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 192
A large amount of confidential data was leaked during a recent security breach. As part of a forensic investigation, the security team needs to identify the various types of traffic that were captured between two
compromised devices.
Which of the following should be used to identify the traffic?

  • A. Hashing
  • B. Disk imaging
  • C. Packet analysis
  • D. Carving
  • E. Memory dump

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 193
A company has several internal-only, web-based applications on the internal network. Remote employees are allowed to connect to the internal corporate network with a company-supplied VPN client. During a project to upgrade the internal application, contractors were hired to work on a database server and were given copies of the VPN client so they could work remotely. A week later, a security analyst discovered an internal web-server had been compromised by malware that originated from one of the contractor's laptops. Which of the following changes should be made to BEST counter the threat presented in this scenario?

  • A. Create a restricted network segment for contractors, and set up a jump box for the contractors to use to access internal resources.
  • B. Deploy a web application firewall in the DMZ to stop Internet-based attacks on the web server.
  • C. Require the contractors to bring their laptops on site when accessing the internal network instead of using the VPN from a remote location.
  • D. Implement NAC to check for updated anti-malware signatures and location-based rules for PCs connecting to the internal network.
  • E. Deploy an application layer firewall with network access control lists at the perimeter, and then create alerts for suspicious Layer 7 traffic.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 194
A security analyst is investigate an no client related to an alert from the threat detection platform on a host (10.0 1.25) in a staging environment that could be running a cryptomining tool because it in sending traffic to an IP address that are related to Bitcoin.
The network rules for the instance are the following:

Which of the following is the BEST way to isolate and triage the host?

  • A. Remove rules 1.2. 3.4. and 5.
  • B. Remove rules 1.2. and 5.
  • C. Remove rules 1.2. and 3.
  • D. Remove rules 1.2. 4. and 5.
  • E. Remove rules 4 and 5
  • F. Remove rules 1.4. and 5.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 195
A company's legal and accounting teams have decided it would be more cost-effective to offload the risks of data storage to a third party. The IT management team has decided to implement a cloud model and has asked the security team for recommendations. Which of the following will allow all data to be kept on the third-party network?

  • A. SaaS
  • B. VDI
  • C. CASB
  • D. FaaS

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 196
D18912E1457D5D1DDCBD40AB3BF70D5D
A security analyst scanned an internal company subnet and discovered a host with the following Nmap output.

Based on the output of this Nmap scan, which of the following should the analyst investigate FIRST?

  • A. Port 445
  • B. Port 3389
  • C. Port 135
  • D. Port 22

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 197
Company A is m the process of merging with Company B As part of the merger, connectivity between the ERP systems must be established so portent financial information can be shared between the two entitles. Which of the following will establish a more automated approach to secure data transfers between the two entities?

  • A. Set up a VPN between Company A and Company B. granting access only lo the ERPs within the connection
  • B. Create static NATs on each entity's firewalls that map lo the ERP systems and use native ERP authentication to allow access.
  • C. Set up a PKI between Company A and Company B and Intermediate shared certificates between the two entities
  • D. Set up an FTP server that both companies can access and export the required financial data to a folder.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 198
A security analyst is reviewing vulnerability scan results and notices new workstations are being flagged as having outdated antivirus signatures. The analyst observes the following plugin output:

The analyst uses the vendor's website to confirm the oldest supported version is correct. Which of the following BEST describes the situation?

  • A. This is a true negative and the new computers have the correct version of the software
  • B. This is a true positive and the new computers were imaged with an old version of the software
  • C. This is a false negative and the new computers need to be updated by the desktop team
  • D. This is a false positive and the scanning plugin needs to be updated by the vendor

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 199
A user's computer has been running slowly when the user tries to access web pages. A security analyst runs the command netstat -aonfrom the command line and receives the following output:

Which of the following lines indicates the computer may be compromised?

  • A. Line 2
  • B. Line 3
  • C. Line 6
  • D. Line 5
  • E. Line 1
  • F. Line 4

Answer: F

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:


NEW QUESTION # 200
According to a static analysis report for a web application, a dynamic code evaluation script injection vulnerability was found. Which of the following actions is the BEST option to fix the vulnerability in the source code?

  • A. Delete the vulnerable section of the code immediately.
  • B. Validate user input before execution and interpretation.
  • C. Use parameterized queries.
  • D. Create a custom rule on the web application firewall.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Validating user input before execution and interpretation can help to prevent dynamic code evaluation script injection vulnerabilities by checking and filtering any malicious input from the user that may contain code or commands. Dynamic code evaluation script injection is a type of vulnerability that occurs when an application accepts user input and executes or interprets it as part of its own code without proper validation or sanitization. This can allow an attacker to inject arbitrary code or commands into the application and execute them with the same privileges as the application . Validating user input before execution and interpretation can help to ensure that the input conforms to the expected format, length and type, and does not contain any malicious characters or syntax that may alter the logic or behavior of the application .


NEW QUESTION # 201
An application server runs slowly and then triggers a high CPU alert. After investigating, a security analyst finds an unauthorized program is running on the server. The analyst reviews the application log below.

Which of the following conclusions is supported by the application log?

  • A. An attacker was attempting to perform an XSS attack via a vulnerable third-party library.
  • B. An attacker was attempting to perform a DoS attack against the server.
  • C. An attacker was attempting to download files via a remote command execution vulnerability
  • D. An attacker was attempting to perform a buffer overflow attack to execute a payload in memory.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 202
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has asked the security staff to identify a framework on which to base the security program. The CISO would like to achieve a certification showing the security program meets all required best practices. Which of the following would be the BEST choice?

  • A. OSSIM
  • B. ISO
  • C. SANS
  • D. SDLC

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 203
A network appliance manufacturer is building a new generation of devices and would like to include chipset security improvements. The management team wants the security team to implement a method to prevent security weaknesses that could be reintroduced by downgrading the firmware version on the chipset. Which of the following would meet this objective?

  • A. eFUSE
  • B. UEFI
  • C. Certificate signed updates
  • D. A hardware security module

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) UEFI is not correct. UEFI stands for Unified Extensible Firmware Interface, and it is a standard that defines the software interface between an operating system and a platform firmware. UEFI can provide security features, such as secure boot, which verifies the integrity of the boot loader and prevents unauthorized code execution during the boot process. However, UEFI does not prevent security weaknesses that could be reintroduced by downgrading the firmware version on the chipset2.
B) A hardware security module is not correct. A hardware security module (HSM) is a physical device that provides secure storage and processing of cryptographic keys and operations. An HSM can protect sensitive data and transactions, such as encryption, decryption, signing, or verification, from unauthorized access or tampering. However, an HSM does not prevent security weaknesses that could be reintroduced by downgrading the firmware version on the chipset3.
D) Certificate signed updates are not correct. Certificate signed updates are a method of ensuring the authenticity and integrity of firmware updates by using digital certificates and signatures. Certificate signed updates can prevent malicious or corrupted firmware updates from being installed on the chipset, but they do not prevent security weaknesses that could be reintroduced by downgrading the firmware version on the chipset.
1: What Is an eFUSE? 2: What Is UEFI? 3: What Is a Hardware Security Module (HSM)?
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. eFUSE. An eFUSE is a type of electronic fuse that can be programmed to permanently alter the functionality or configuration of a chipset. An eFUSE can be used to prevent security weaknesses that could be reintroduced by downgrading the firmware version on the chipset, by locking the firmware to a specific version or preventing unauthorized modifications. An eFUSE can also provide other benefits, such as anti-tampering, anti-counterfeiting, and device authentication1.


NEW QUESTION # 204
An organization developed a comprehensive modern response policy Executive management approved the policy and its associated procedures. Which of the following activities would be MOST beneficial to evaluate personnel's familiarity with incident response procedures?

  • A. Completion of lessons-learned documentation by the computer security incident response team
  • B. Completion of annual information security awareness training by ail employees
  • C. A simulated breach scenario evolving the incident response team
  • D. Tabtetop activities involving business continuity team members
  • E. External and internal penetration testing by a third party

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 205
......


The CS0-002 exam is intended for professionals who have a minimum of 4 years of experience in information security or related fields. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is ideal for cybersecurity analysts, security operations center (SOC) analysts, security engineers, and other professionals who want to enhance their skills and knowledge in cybersecurity analysis. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is vendor-neutral, which means that it is not tied to any specific technology or product. This makes it a valuable certification for professionals who work in a variety of industries and environments.

 

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